Jesus' answer to the Pharisees in Matthew, Mark, and Luke

Additions made 12/12/06 several links were added to back up my contentions of the composition of each Gospel's audience.

1) Matthew was written for the Jews: Link 2 Link 3 Link 4

(written c. 60 AD either in Judea or Syria)
Mt 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: (modern translations using the original Greek manuscripts lack the next clause 12/11/06) and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery

Thoughts - Is this a confirmation of the Shammai school of divorce only for "porneia"? Or conversely a condemnation of the Hillel/Akiba easy-divorce school? From Wikipedia:

"The house of Shammai say, a man may not put away his wife, unless he finds some uncleanness in her, according to Deu. 24:1. The house of Hillel say, if she should spoil his food, (that is, as Jarchi and Bartenora explain it, burns it either at the fire, or with salt, i.e. over-roasts or over-salts it,) who appeal also to Deu. 24:1. R. Akiba says, if he finds another more beautiful than her, as it is said, Deu. 24:1 "and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes."[4] "


2) Luke was written for the gentile Christians: Link 2 Link 3

(written early 60's AD possibly in Rome)
Lk 16:18 Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.

Thoughts - Compare this with Paul's 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 verses which is written for the Christians:

(written c. 55 AD by Paul in Ephesus)
1 Co 7:10: And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.

Do these instructions between Paul's and Luke's passages conflict? I view them as very much in agreement with each other. Look at the 'radioactive' divorced wife in Luke and Paul's request that the departing wife remain unmarried in the 1 Corinthians verse. I'll blog on this later.

It is interesting to note that Luke was a fellow traveler of Paul.


3) Mark was written for the Greco-Romans: Link 2 Link 3 Link 4

(written in Rome c. 60 AD)
Mark 10:11: And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. 12:And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery

From a Christian web site:

"In the Roman empire and Greek culture, either the husband or the wife could divorce their spouse unilaterally by simply separating from them. If the husband (who usually owned the house) wished to divorce his wife, all he needed to do was tell her to leave; if the wife wanted a divorce, she need only depart. There was no other legal requirement, no documentation, and nothing the partner could do to stop the divorcing husband or wife."

How does Mark's verses compare to the Greco-Roman style divorce-by-separation? There is tradition that Mark was a disciple of Peter's in Rome and his Gospel incorporated Peter's sermons.