In Christ's teachings there are 4 'husband divorces wife' scenarios that are consistent for adultery when the man remarries. They are
Mat 5:32, 19:9, Mar 10:11, and Luk 16:18.
Matthew's passages may allow for the man to divorce for fornication (Greek porneia), although there are lots of good arguments against this exception. Most of these have to do with the translation of porneia into modern English. I'd suggest Google for those arguments.
How should we read these 'husband divorces wife' verses? It always has the appearance of the other woman, i.e. the new wife.
i) Those verses can be read as the husband taking interest in the other woman then divorcing and remarrying.
ii) Or can it be that the husband divorces the wife then remains single (unmarried) then remarries years later?
What do you think? I'd be interested.
What is the innocent wife to do in either scenario?
The 'wife divorces husband' man in Mark 10:12 has a similar consideration to make here also.
Maybe Paul's 1 Corinthians 7 has something to say about this.
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